Reverse "pay gap" Part I

Much has been already said about the article in NY Times in readers’ comments section… I failed to make comments since they stopped accepting comments at 5PM on the next day…

Anyway here is my take on the article as well as on comments by readers.

Where is the outrage on this?? Of course there will be no such thing as long as it favors women; instead they will ponder how this women’s advantage could be poured into other areas of society so that women could establish general superiority over men.

It’s a faulty research, as are all researches done on this topic. When feminists want to stress their victim status, they will use data on AVERAGE wages of all men and women, and disregard any factors that are very relevant to determining one’s wags, such as experience, number of hours worked, etc. When they want to boost their self-confidence, they will use the data on MEDIAN wages of all men and women, again regardless of educational background, etc. (Age will be by definition considered, I guess).

Why?

Because if you use AVERAGE wages, the figure will factor in the wages of ALL men, including those men who are corporate CEOs, high-flying lawyers, who are “outliers” in statistic terms since their extremely high salaries will skew the average salary figures. Since most CEOs and top layers are men, it will inevitably raise the average in men’s favor, and then you have it; data that “proves” pervasive societal discrimination against women.

On the other hand, if you use MEDIAN wage, you can exclude all these statistical outliers from the calculation, and the salary of a man who happens to be in the exact median (if there are 10,001 men, the man with the 5,001st highest/lowest salary) will be used as a figure. Because of a large number of less-educated men in urban areas who do mostly physical labor and for a less pay, the data will look suddenly in women’s favor, thus boosting the self-image of feminists.

Reading the article, many femi-Nazi readers loudly proclaimed that “at last the merit-based, fair pay is achieved..”…What? Why is it that if things turn in women’s favor it is fair and pay is strictly merit-based and when the data was in men’s favor, it was undeniable evidence of sexism in patriarchal society?

It is the exact opposite. Okay, just think a little bit more carefully; young women today are given all kinds of gender-based, exclusive protection and preference, from hiring to promotion to all other career advancement goodies, and corporations bending over backwards to change their corporate culture and evaluation criteria for hiring/promotion to fit feminists’ theories and women’s needs, rather than those required to compete in free, dynamic market – while young men are facing the exact opposite situation in every aspect; their resumes tossed out because of their male first names, their promotion denied because of informal gender quota imposed by management, etc.

If young women’s median pay is higher under this condition, is it a merit based or result of social engineering by feminists? You tell me.